One could identify many different sets of rules for chess mathematically, but is one of them objectively the “correct” set of rules?
I find that perplexing. Perhaps you mean many sets of rules could be used to play games with chess boards and pieces. But they are not all chess. Chess is its rules.
Same rules+differrent pieces=same game. Different rules+same pieces=different game.
Chess is its rules. Same rules+differrent pieces=same game. Different rules+same pieces=different game.
This isn’t strictly speaking true. Note that there have many different games called chess. For example, pawns being able to move 2 squares on their first move, en passant, castling, and the queen being able to move as she can, are all recent innovations. But let’s put that aside and explore your analogy. If there’s one thing called “morality” then I fail to see how that isn’t but one game among many. You seem to be treating morality like chess (in that there’s an objective thing that is or is not chess) but are then bringing along for the particular game called “morality” all sorts of assumptions about whether or not people should play it or expect to play it. This seems akin to asserting that because there’s only one objective game called “chess” that entities “should” play it.
In Italy one can still find older chess players who use an alternative castling rule, from when castling was first being introduced, called “free castling” in which the rook can take any of the squares between itself and the king, or the king’s position, rather than the single permitted position (depending on the side) of the more common castling rules we play with today.
Is one of these versions the “correct” way to play chess? Or does it depend entirely on the subjective viewpoint of the chess players?
Which way is the correct way to play “chess” depends on which definition of the word chess you are using. In general, we resolve ambiguities like that by looking at the speaker’s intent. (The speaker does not have to be one of the players.)
Which way is the correct way to play “chess” depends on which definition of the word chess you are using. In general, we resolve ambiguities like that by looking at the speaker’s intent. (The speaker does not have to be one of the players.)
Yes, I know that. I’m asking rhetorical questions to Peter who is a moral realist.
Alright, this is your analogy, and instead of dancing around and arguing definitions can you explain, in precise terms, what you mean when you say chess?
I find that perplexing. Perhaps you mean many sets of rules could be used to play games with chess boards and pieces. But they are not all chess. Chess is its rules. Same rules+differrent pieces=same game. Different rules+same pieces=different game.
This isn’t strictly speaking true. Note that there have many different games called chess. For example, pawns being able to move 2 squares on their first move, en passant, castling, and the queen being able to move as she can, are all recent innovations. But let’s put that aside and explore your analogy. If there’s one thing called “morality” then I fail to see how that isn’t but one game among many. You seem to be treating morality like chess (in that there’s an objective thing that is or is not chess) but are then bringing along for the particular game called “morality” all sorts of assumptions about whether or not people should play it or expect to play it. This seems akin to asserting that because there’s only one objective game called “chess” that entities “should” play it.
In Italy one can still find older chess players who use an alternative castling rule, from when castling was first being introduced, called “free castling” in which the rook can take any of the squares between itself and the king, or the king’s position, rather than the single permitted position (depending on the side) of the more common castling rules we play with today.
Is one of these versions the “correct” way to play chess? Or does it depend entirely on the subjective viewpoint of the chess players?
Which way is the correct way to play “chess” depends on which definition of the word chess you are using. In general, we resolve ambiguities like that by looking at the speaker’s intent. (The speaker does not have to be one of the players.)
Yes, I know that. I’m asking rhetorical questions to Peter who is a moral realist.
Chess might be a small and closely related family of rule-sets. That doesn’t affect anything.
Alright, this is your analogy, and instead of dancing around and arguing definitions can you explain, in precise terms, what you mean when you say chess?