Not necessarily. If A was a Nash equilibrium while B was a Pareto improvement from that but the second society couldn’t coordinate to achieve it, then they could gaze wistfully into the past, say they had fallen, and be right to do so.
Yes, necessarily, if A and B are sets of moral values, not the degree to which they are attained. You’re interpreting A and B as, say, wealth or power distributions.
Not necessarily. If A was a Nash equilibrium while B was a Pareto improvement from that but the second society couldn’t coordinate to achieve it, then they could gaze wistfully into the past, say they had fallen, and be right to do so.
Yes, necessarily, if A and B are sets of moral values, not the degree to which they are attained. You’re interpreting A and B as, say, wealth or power distributions.
Hmmm. Yes. But I don’t know that you would actually be able to find examples of A and B in real life.