I don’t see how the fact that the permissiveness principle is only based on one (two, actually, including the third one) of the six foundations would imply that it’s not a widely-held intuition.
You’re falsely conflating the permissiveness principle with those moral foundations. The permissiveness principle is a much stronger position, which states that things are only immoral if they cause harm.
I don’t see how the fact that the permissiveness principle is only based on one (two, actually, including the third one) of the six foundations would imply that it’s not a widely-held intuition.
You’re falsely conflating the permissiveness principle with those moral foundations. The permissiveness principle is a much stronger position, which states that things are only immoral if they cause harm.
I was thinking of the PP as more of a rule of thumb.