It seems to me that what you’re suggesting constitutes logical rudeness on the consequentialist’s part. The argument ran like this:
Take a hypothetical case involving A and B. You are asked to make a moral judgement. If you judge A and B’s actions differently, you are judging as if M is true. If you judge them to be the same, you are judging as if N is true.
The reply you provided wouldn’t be relevant if you said right away that that A and B’s actions are morally the same. It’s only relevant if you’ve judged them to be different (in some way) in response to the hypothetical. Your reply is then that this judgement turns out not to be a moral judgement at all, but an irrelevant aesthetic judgement. This is logically rude because I asked you to make a moral judgement in the first place. You should have just said right off that you don’t judge the two cases differently.
If someone asks me to make a moral judgment about whether A and B’s actions are morally the same, and I judge that they are morally different, and then later I say that they are morally equivalent, I’m clearly being inconsistent. Perhaps I’m being logically rude, perhaps I’m confused, perhaps I’ve changed my mind.
If someone asks me to compare A and B, and I judge that A is better than B, and then later I say that they are morally equivalent, another possibility is that I was not making what I consider a moral judgment in the first place.
I’m confused as to why, upon being asked for a moral evaluation in the course of a discussion on consequentialism and deontology, someone would offer me an aesthetic evaluation they themselves consider irrelevant to the moral question. I don’t think my request for an evaluation was very ambiguous: Berry understood and answered accordingly, and it would surely be strange to think I had asked for an aesthetic evaluation in the middle of a defense of deontology. So I don’t understand how your suggestion would add anything to the discussion.
In the hypothetical discussion you asked me to consider, X makes an assertion about Y’s moral judgments, and Y replies that what X is referring to isn’t a moral judgment. Hence, I said “In this example Y has said all along that Y doesn’t judge A’s act to be morally different from B’s,” and you replied “It seems to me that what you’re suggesting constitutes logical rudeness on the consequentialist’s part.”
I, apparently incorrectly, assumed we were still talking about your hypothetical example.
Now, it seems you’re talking instead about your earlier conversation with Berry, which I haven’t read. I’ll take your word for it that my suggestion would not add anything to that discussion.
It seems to me that what you’re suggesting constitutes logical rudeness on the consequentialist’s part. The argument ran like this:
Take a hypothetical case involving A and B. You are asked to make a moral judgement. If you judge A and B’s actions differently, you are judging as if M is true. If you judge them to be the same, you are judging as if N is true.
The reply you provided wouldn’t be relevant if you said right away that that A and B’s actions are morally the same. It’s only relevant if you’ve judged them to be different (in some way) in response to the hypothetical. Your reply is then that this judgement turns out not to be a moral judgement at all, but an irrelevant aesthetic judgement. This is logically rude because I asked you to make a moral judgement in the first place. You should have just said right off that you don’t judge the two cases differently.
If someone asks me to make a moral judgment about whether A and B’s actions are morally the same, and I judge that they are morally different, and then later I say that they are morally equivalent, I’m clearly being inconsistent. Perhaps I’m being logically rude, perhaps I’m confused, perhaps I’ve changed my mind.
If someone asks me to compare A and B, and I judge that A is better than B, and then later I say that they are morally equivalent, another possibility is that I was not making what I consider a moral judgment in the first place.
I’m confused as to why, upon being asked for a moral evaluation in the course of a discussion on consequentialism and deontology, someone would offer me an aesthetic evaluation they themselves consider irrelevant to the moral question. I don’t think my request for an evaluation was very ambiguous: Berry understood and answered accordingly, and it would surely be strange to think I had asked for an aesthetic evaluation in the middle of a defense of deontology. So I don’t understand how your suggestion would add anything to the discussion.
In the hypothetical discussion you asked me to consider, X makes an assertion about Y’s moral judgments, and Y replies that what X is referring to isn’t a moral judgment. Hence, I said “In this example Y has said all along that Y doesn’t judge A’s act to be morally different from B’s,” and you replied “It seems to me that what you’re suggesting constitutes logical rudeness on the consequentialist’s part.”
I, apparently incorrectly, assumed we were still talking about your hypothetical example.
Now, it seems you’re talking instead about your earlier conversation with Berry, which I haven’t read. I’ll take your word for it that my suggestion would not add anything to that discussion.
Dave, I think you’re pulling my leg. Your initial comment to me was from one of my posts to Berry, so of course you read it! I’m going to tap out.