I’m sorry to be brutal about this, but nothing I have ever heard anyone say about “separate magisteria” has ever been conceptually coherent let alone consistent.
I challenge myself to show you a concept of “separate magisteria” that is conceptually coherent and consistent. Of course it requires relaxation of the initial assumptions of empiricism. Should I proceed, or do you already grant the conclusion if I am going to relax these assumptions, to save me the trouble?
I can.
In another comment you wrote,
I challenge myself to show you a concept of “separate magisteria” that is conceptually coherent and consistent. Of course it requires relaxation of the initial assumptions of empiricism. Should I proceed, or do you already grant the conclusion if I am going to relax these assumptions, to save me the trouble?