Why would those correlations invalidate it, assuming we have controlled for origin and education, and are sampling society with low disparity? (e.g. western Europe).
I wouldn’t call present-day western Europe a society with low disparity. Fifteen years ago, maybe.
I’ve heard so too, then I followed news on Fukushima, and the clean up workers were treated worse than Chernobyl cleanup workers, complete with lack of dosimeters, food, and (guessing with a prior from above) replacement respirators—you need to replace this stuff a lot but unlike food you can just reuse and pretend all is fine. (And tsunami is no excuse)
I wouldn’t call present-day western Europe a society with low disparity. Fifteen years ago, maybe.
What are you thinking of as different between 1997 and 2012?
The purchasing power of middle-low classes is a lot less than it used to be, whereas that of upper classes hasn’t changed much AFAICT.
Still a ton better than most other places i’ve been to, though.
I’ve never been there, but I’ve read that Japan has much lower disparity.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burakumin
I’ve heard so too, then I followed news on Fukushima, and the clean up workers were treated worse than Chernobyl cleanup workers, complete with lack of dosimeters, food, and (guessing with a prior from above) replacement respirators—you need to replace this stuff a lot but unlike food you can just reuse and pretend all is fine. (And tsunami is no excuse)