Less violent deaths: since the dawn of humanity, in fact. Acording to Pinker, whether you look at recent millenia or recent decades, the trend is: decreasing violence.
Wealthier: I’m not sure. Possibly since the Renaissance.
More structural violence: Of the (unreliable) top of my head, 5 decades to 2-3 centuries. Since the industrialization, in fact. (But I may exagerate Chomsky’s view. For instance, he also says the “manufacturing consent” situation is slowly improving for a few decades.)
Under what meaningful time frame could he claim this to be true? When has the world every been wealthier and less violent?
Less violent deaths: since the dawn of humanity, in fact. Acording to Pinker, whether you look at recent millenia or recent decades, the trend is: decreasing violence.
Wealthier: I’m not sure. Possibly since the Renaissance.
More structural violence: Of the (unreliable) top of my head, 5 decades to 2-3 centuries. Since the industrialization, in fact. (But I may exagerate Chomsky’s view. For instance, he also says the “manufacturing consent” situation is slowly improving for a few decades.)