SforSingularity comments on Mathematical simplicity bias and exponential functions

SforSingularity 27 Aug 2009 22:13 UTC
−2 points

The answer is yes.

I think we have just established that the answer is no… for the definition of “approximate” that you gave…
- ArthurB 27 Aug 2009 23:20 UTC
  1 point
  Parent
  Hum no you haven’t. The approximation depends on the scale of course.