OK. So, consider a proposal to force prisoners to perform involuntary labor, in such a way that society gains more utilons from that labor than the individuals lose from being forced to perform it.
Would you support that proposal? Would you label that proposal “slavery”? If not (to either or both), why not?
It would probably depend on the specific proposal. I’d lean more towards “no” the more involuntary and demeaning the task. (I’m not certain my values are consistent here; I haven’t put huge amounts of thought into it.)
Would you label that proposal “slavery”?
Not in the sense I thought we were talking about, which (at least in my mind) included the concept of one individual “owning” another. In a more general sense, I guess yes.
Well, for my own part I would consider a system of involuntary forced labor as good an example of slavery as I can think of… to be told “yes, you have to work at what I tell you to work at, and you have no choice in the matter, but at least I don’t own you” would be bewildering.
That said, I don’t care about the semantics very much. But if the deciding factor in your opposition to legalizing and regulating slavery is that slavery harms someone against their will, then it seems strange to me that who owns whom is relevant here. Is ownership in and of itself a form of harm?
Tabooing “slavery”: “You committed crimes and society has deemed that you will perform task X for Y years as a repayment” seems significantly different (to me) from “You were kidnapped from country Z, sold to plantation owner W and must perform task X for the rest of your life”. I can see arguments for and against the former, but the latter is just plain evil.
This actually understates the degree of difference. Chattel slavery isn’t simply about involuntary labor. It also involves, for example, lacking the autonomy to marry without the consent of one’s master, the arbitrary separation of families and the selling of slaves’ children, etc.
Sure, I agree. But unless the latter is what’s being referred to Biblically, we do seem to have shifted the topic of conversation somewhere along the line.
It’s been awhile since I read it last, but IIRC, the laws regarding slavery in the OT cover individuals captured in a war as well as those sold into slavery to pay a debt.
OK. So, consider a proposal to force prisoners to perform involuntary labor, in such a way that society gains more utilons from that labor than the individuals lose from being forced to perform it.
Would you support that proposal?
Would you label that proposal “slavery”?
If not (to either or both), why not?
It would probably depend on the specific proposal. I’d lean more towards “no” the more involuntary and demeaning the task. (I’m not certain my values are consistent here; I haven’t put huge amounts of thought into it.)
Not in the sense I thought we were talking about, which (at least in my mind) included the concept of one individual “owning” another. In a more general sense, I guess yes.
Well, for my own part I would consider a system of involuntary forced labor as good an example of slavery as I can think of… to be told “yes, you have to work at what I tell you to work at, and you have no choice in the matter, but at least I don’t own you” would be bewildering.
That said, I don’t care about the semantics very much. But if the deciding factor in your opposition to legalizing and regulating slavery is that slavery harms someone against their will, then it seems strange to me that who owns whom is relevant here. Is ownership in and of itself a form of harm?
Tabooing “slavery”: “You committed crimes and society has deemed that you will perform task X for Y years as a repayment” seems significantly different (to me) from “You were kidnapped from country Z, sold to plantation owner W and must perform task X for the rest of your life”. I can see arguments for and against the former, but the latter is just plain evil.
This actually understates the degree of difference. Chattel slavery isn’t simply about involuntary labor. It also involves, for example, lacking the autonomy to marry without the consent of one’s master, the arbitrary separation of families and the selling of slaves’ children, etc.
Sure, I agree. But unless the latter is what’s being referred to Biblically, we do seem to have shifted the topic of conversation somewhere along the line.
It’s been awhile since I read it last, but IIRC, the laws regarding slavery in the OT cover individuals captured in a war as well as those sold into slavery to pay a debt.
That’s consistent with my recollection as well.
Does each and every feature of slavery need to contribute to it’s awfulness?
Certainly not.