Well, there do seem to be several studies, including at least one cross-cultural study, that support the “the average female sex drive is lower” theory.
These studies also rely on self-reported sexual feelings and behavior, as reported by the subset of the population willing to volunteer for such a study and answer questions such as “How often do you masturbate?”, and right away you’ve got interference from “signalling what you think sounds right”, “signalling what you’re willing to admit,” “signalling what makes you look impressive”, and “signalling what makes you seem good and not deviant by the standards of your culture.” It is notoriously difficult to generalize such studies—they best serve as descriptive accounts, not causal ones.
Many of the relevant factors are also difficult to pin down; testosterone clearly has an affect, but it’s a physiological correlate that doesn’t suffice to explain the patterns seen (which again, are themselves to be taken with a grain of salt, and not signalling anything causal). . The jump to a speculative account of evolutionary sexual strategies is even less warranted. For a good breakdown, see here: http://www.csun.edu/~vcpsy00h/students/sexmotiv.htm
These are valid points, but you said that there still exist several cultures where women are considered to be more sexual than men. Shouldn’t they then show up in the international studies? Or are these cultures so rare as to not be included in the studies?
Also, it occurs to me that whether or not the differences are biological is somewhat of a red herring. If they are mainly cultural, then it means that it will be easier for an FAI to modify them, but that doesn’t affect the primary question of whether they should be modified. Surely that question is entirely independent of the question of their precise causal origin?
An addendum: There’s also the “Ecological fallacy” to consider—where a dataset suggests that on the mean, a population A has property P and population B has P+5, but randomly selecting members of each population will give very different results due to differences in distribution.
These are valid points, but you said that there still exist several cultures where women are considered to be more sexual than men. Shouldn’t they then show up in the international studies? Or are these cultures so rare as to not be included in the studies?
Actually it’s entirely possible to miss a lot of detail while ostensibly sampling broadly. If you sample citizens in Bogota, Mumbai, Taibei, Kuala Lumpur, Ashgabat, Cleveland, Tijuana, Reykjavik, London, and Warsaw, that’s pretty darn international and thus a good cross-cultural representation of humanity, right? Surely any signals that emerge from that dataset are probably at least suggestive of innate human tendency?
Well, actually, no. Those are all major cities deeply influenced and shaped by the same patterns of mercantile-industrialist economics that came out of parts of Eurasia and spread over the globe during the colonial era and continue to do so—and that influence has worked its way into an awful lot of everyday life for most of the people in the world. It would be like assuming that using wheels is a human cultural universal, because of their prevalence.
An even better analogy here would be if you one day take a bit of plant tissue and looking under a microcoscope, spot the mitochondria. Then you find the same thing in animal tissue. When you see it in fungi, too, you start to wonder. You go sampling and sampling all the visible organisms you can find and even ones from far away, and they all share this trait. It’s only Archeans and Bacteria that seem not to. Well, in point of fact there are more types of those than of anything else, significantly more varied and divergent than the other organisms you were looking at put together. It’s not a basal condition for living things, it’s just a trait that’s nearly universal in the ones you’re most likely to notice or think about. (The break in the analogy being that mitochondria are a matter of ancestry and subsequent divergence, while many of the human cultural similarities you’d observe in my above example are a matter of alternatives being winnowed and pushed to the margins, and existing similarities amplified by the effects of a coopting culture-plex that’s come to dominate the picture).
If they are mainly cultural, then it means that it will be easier for an FAI to modify them, but that doesn’t affect the primary question of whether they should be modified. Surely that question is entirely independent of the question of their precise causal origin?
It totally is, but my point was that Eliezer has expressed it’s a matter of biology, and if I’m correct in my thoughts he’s wrong about that—and in my understanding of how he feels FAI would behave, this would lead to the behavior I described (FAI explains to Eliezer that he’s gotten that wrong).
Well, there do seem to be several studies, including at least one cross-cultural study, that support the “the average female sex drive is lower” theory.
These studies also rely on self-reported sexual feelings and behavior, as reported by the subset of the population willing to volunteer for such a study and answer questions such as “How often do you masturbate?”, and right away you’ve got interference from “signalling what you think sounds right”, “signalling what you’re willing to admit,” “signalling what makes you look impressive”, and “signalling what makes you seem good and not deviant by the standards of your culture.” It is notoriously difficult to generalize such studies—they best serve as descriptive accounts, not causal ones.
Many of the relevant factors are also difficult to pin down; testosterone clearly has an affect, but it’s a physiological correlate that doesn’t suffice to explain the patterns seen (which again, are themselves to be taken with a grain of salt, and not signalling anything causal). . The jump to a speculative account of evolutionary sexual strategies is even less warranted. For a good breakdown, see here: http://www.csun.edu/~vcpsy00h/students/sexmotiv.htm
These are valid points, but you said that there still exist several cultures where women are considered to be more sexual than men. Shouldn’t they then show up in the international studies? Or are these cultures so rare as to not be included in the studies?
Also, it occurs to me that whether or not the differences are biological is somewhat of a red herring. If they are mainly cultural, then it means that it will be easier for an FAI to modify them, but that doesn’t affect the primary question of whether they should be modified. Surely that question is entirely independent of the question of their precise causal origin?
An addendum: There’s also the “Ecological fallacy” to consider—where a dataset suggests that on the mean, a population A has property P and population B has P+5, but randomly selecting members of each population will give very different results due to differences in distribution.
Actually it’s entirely possible to miss a lot of detail while ostensibly sampling broadly. If you sample citizens in Bogota, Mumbai, Taibei, Kuala Lumpur, Ashgabat, Cleveland, Tijuana, Reykjavik, London, and Warsaw, that’s pretty darn international and thus a good cross-cultural representation of humanity, right? Surely any signals that emerge from that dataset are probably at least suggestive of innate human tendency?
Well, actually, no. Those are all major cities deeply influenced and shaped by the same patterns of mercantile-industrialist economics that came out of parts of Eurasia and spread over the globe during the colonial era and continue to do so—and that influence has worked its way into an awful lot of everyday life for most of the people in the world. It would be like assuming that using wheels is a human cultural universal, because of their prevalence.
An even better analogy here would be if you one day take a bit of plant tissue and looking under a microcoscope, spot the mitochondria. Then you find the same thing in animal tissue. When you see it in fungi, too, you start to wonder. You go sampling and sampling all the visible organisms you can find and even ones from far away, and they all share this trait. It’s only Archeans and Bacteria that seem not to. Well, in point of fact there are more types of those than of anything else, significantly more varied and divergent than the other organisms you were looking at put together. It’s not a basal condition for living things, it’s just a trait that’s nearly universal in the ones you’re most likely to notice or think about. (The break in the analogy being that mitochondria are a matter of ancestry and subsequent divergence, while many of the human cultural similarities you’d observe in my above example are a matter of alternatives being winnowed and pushed to the margins, and existing similarities amplified by the effects of a coopting culture-plex that’s come to dominate the picture).
It totally is, but my point was that Eliezer has expressed it’s a matter of biology, and if I’m correct in my thoughts he’s wrong about that—and in my understanding of how he feels FAI would behave, this would lead to the behavior I described (FAI explains to Eliezer that he’s gotten that wrong).