n%3=0 is distinguishable from n%3=1∨n%3=2. If A=”n%3=0“, B=”n%3=1”, and C=”n%3=2″, then an isomorphism f that maps B∨C to A must satisfy f(B∨C) = f(B)∨f(C) = A, which is impossible.
I understand, what I wrote was wrong. What if we use n%3=0 and ~(n%3=0) though?
n%3=0 is distinguishable from n%3=1∨n%3=2. If A=”n%3=0“, B=”n%3=1”, and C=”n%3=2″, then an isomorphism f that maps B∨C to A must satisfy f(B∨C) = f(B)∨f(C) = A, which is impossible.
I understand, what I wrote was wrong. What if we use n%3=0 and ~(n%3=0) though?