I already gave Cyan that classic answer, complete with a link to Jaynes, in this very comment thread. :-) But it doesn’t settle the problem completely for me. It feels like finger-pointing. Yes, frequentists have lower quality answers; but why isn’t the average calibration of a billion Bayesians in any way related to that 90% number that they all use?
I already gave Cyan that classic answer, complete with a link to Jaynes, in this very comment thread. :-) But it doesn’t settle the problem completely for me. It feels like finger-pointing. Yes, frequentists have lower quality answers; but why isn’t the average calibration of a billion Bayesians in any way related to that 90% number that they all use?