As a lawyer, I want to say that “preponderance of the evidence” is satisfied by the theory that is most likely given the evidence presented. It’s fancy talk for “we can’t both lose.”
Edit: 50% plus epsilon satisfies the legal standard “preponderance of the evidence”
As a lawyer, I want to say that “preponderance of the evidence” is satisfied by the theory that is most likely given the evidence presented. It’s fancy talk for “we can’t both lose.”
Edit: 50% plus epsilon satisfies the legal standard “preponderance of the evidence”