I’d consider putting in hypothesis space that Bostrom declares a mimicry probability being high in order to shift opinions towards the safer direction, not necessarily because it coincides with his epistemic subjective state.
I don’t understand negative point. Could it be explained please?
Is it because his position equals what he declares and not what he really think?
Or becase Bostroms mimicry (=for some reasons prefere negative, catastrophic and alarmist position) is not suposed?
I’d consider putting in hypothesis space that Bostrom declares a mimicry probability being high in order to shift opinions towards the safer direction, not necessarily because it coincides with his epistemic subjective state.
I don’t understand negative point. Could it be explained please?
Is it because his position equals what he declares and not what he really think?
Or becase Bostroms mimicry (=for some reasons prefere negative, catastrophic and alarmist position) is not suposed?