Verb, assuming that the idea is that “to blake” is to do to a person what LaMDA apparently did to Blake Lemoine and “Charlotte” apparently did to you. So “blake” is a verb, and “blaked” is a past participle, which means that it’s a form of a verb that functions as an adjective meaning “having been the object on an occasion when the thing the verb describes was done”.
I knew “drunk” in “I have drunk two bottles already today” is a past participle, but wasn’t sure whether it’s also a past participle in “I have been drunk”, since it seemed like a different case, and then “They got me drunk” seemed to be yet another separate case.
The implied full grammatical form was “I have been blaked”
I think “I have been drunk” is the same meaning as in “They got me drunk”, unless you are a glass of water in one case but not the other. I’m not sure whether that sort of “drunk” is technically a past participle in some sense, but it behaves differently from most past participles. Normally the past participle of “to X” means “having had X done to you” but “drunk” in these cases means something more like “having done X”.
For what it’s worth, the Oxford English Dictionary considers that form of “drunk” an adjective rather than a past participle.
Verb, assuming that the idea is that “to blake” is to do to a person what LaMDA apparently did to Blake Lemoine and “Charlotte” apparently did to you. So “blake” is a verb, and “blaked” is a past participle, which means that it’s a form of a verb that functions as an adjective meaning “having been the object on an occasion when the thing the verb describes was done”.
Very well.
I knew “drunk” in “I have drunk two bottles already today” is a past participle, but wasn’t sure whether it’s also a past participle in “I have been drunk”, since it seemed like a different case, and then “They got me drunk” seemed to be yet another separate case.
The implied full grammatical form was “I have been blaked”
I think “I have been drunk” is the same meaning as in “They got me drunk”, unless you are a glass of water in one case but not the other. I’m not sure whether that sort of “drunk” is technically a past participle in some sense, but it behaves differently from most past participles. Normally the past participle of “to X” means “having had X done to you” but “drunk” in these cases means something more like “having done X”.
For what it’s worth, the Oxford English Dictionary considers that form of “drunk” an adjective rather than a past participle.