Indefinite integrals would make a lot more sense this way, IMO
Why so? I thought they already made sense, they’re “antiderivatives”, so a function such that taking its derivative gives you the original functions. Do you need anything further to define them?
(I know about the definite integral Riemann and Lebesgue definitions, but I thought indefinite integrals were much easier in comparison.
Now that I’m thinking about it, my memory’s fuzzy on how you’d actually calculate them rigorously w/infinitesimals. Will get back to you with an example.
Thank you, that makes sense!
Why so? I thought they already made sense, they’re “antiderivatives”, so a function such that taking its derivative gives you the original functions. Do you need anything further to define them?
(I know about the definite integral Riemann and Lebesgue definitions, but I thought indefinite integrals were much easier in comparison.
Language mix-up. Meant improper integrals.
Now that I’m thinking about it, my memory’s fuzzy on how you’d actually calculate them rigorously w/infinitesimals. Will get back to you with an example.