They are supposedly (according to Kant) equivalent, though most Kant scholars don’t seem to treat them as if they were. I do recommend Daniel Kokotajlo’s fun decision theory app store post where he makes the case that they are in fact, sort of, equivalent.
They are supposedly (according to Kant) equivalent, though most Kant scholars don’t seem to treat them as if they were. I do recommend Daniel Kokotajlo’s fun decision theory app store post where he makes the case that they are in fact, sort of, equivalent.