If they all have the same prior probability, then their probabilities are the same and stay that way. If you use a prior which arbitrarily (in my view) gives some things higher prior probabilities in a 100% non-evidence-based way, I object to that, and it’s a separate issue from support.
How does having a prior save the concept of support? Can you give an example? Maybe the one here, currently near the bottom:
If they all have the same prior probability, then their probabilities are the same and stay that way.
Well shouldn’t they? If you look at it from the perspective of making decisions rather than finding one right theory, it’s obvious that they are equiprobable and this should be recognized.
If you use a prior which arbitrarily (in my view) gives some things higher prior probabilities in a 100% non-evidence-based way, I object to that, and it’s a separate issue from support.
Solomonoff does not give “some things higher prior probabilities in a 100% non-evidence-based way”. All hypotheses have the same probability, many just make similar predictions.
If they all have the same prior probability, then their probabilities are the same and stay that way. If you use a prior which arbitrarily (in my view) gives some things higher prior probabilities in a 100% non-evidence-based way, I object to that, and it’s a separate issue from support.
How does having a prior save the concept of support? Can you give an example? Maybe the one here, currently near the bottom:
http://lesswrong.com/lw/54u/bayesian_epistemology_vs_popper/3urr?context=3
Well shouldn’t they? If you look at it from the perspective of making decisions rather than finding one right theory, it’s obvious that they are equiprobable and this should be recognized.
Solomonoff does not give “some things higher prior probabilities in a 100% non-evidence-based way”. All hypotheses have the same probability, many just make similar predictions.