It’s a proof based on premises of uncertain validity. So it certainly proves something, in some situations—the question is whether these situations are narrow, or broad.
Would it be possible to make those clearer in the post?
I had thought, from the way you phrased it, that the assumption was that for any game, I would be equally likelly to encounter a game with the choices and power levels of the original game reversed. This struck me as plausible, or at least a good point to start from.
What you in fact seem to need, is that I am equally likely to encounter a game with the outcome under this scheme reversed, but the power levels kept the same. This continues to strike me as a very substansive and almost certainly false assertion about the games I am likely to face.
I think you and I have very different understandings of the word ‘proof’.
It’s a proof based on premises of uncertain validity. So it certainly proves something, in some situations—the question is whether these situations are narrow, or broad.
Would it be possible to make those clearer in the post?
I had thought, from the way you phrased it, that the assumption was that for any game, I would be equally likelly to encounter a game with the choices and power levels of the original game reversed. This struck me as plausible, or at least a good point to start from.
What you in fact seem to need, is that I am equally likely to encounter a game with the outcome under this scheme reversed, but the power levels kept the same. This continues to strike me as a very substansive and almost certainly false assertion about the games I am likely to face.
After the baby, when I have time to do it properly :-)
Fair enough