How could an SI compare a deterministic theory to a probablistic one?
The deterministic theory gets probability proportional to 2^-length + (0 if it was correct so far else -infty), the probabilistic theory gets probability proportional to 2^-length + log(probability it assigned to the observations so far).
That said, I was not suggesting a solomonoff inductor in which some machines were outputting bits and others were outputting probabilities.
I suspect that there’s a miscommunication somewhere up the line, and my not-terribly-charitable-guess is that it stems from you misunderstanding the formalism of Solomonoff induction and/or the point I was making about it. I do not expect to clarify further, alas. I’d welcome someone else hopping in if they think they see the point I was making & can transmit it.
The deterministic theory gets probability proportional to 2^-length + (0 if it was correct so far else -infty), the probabilistic theory gets probability proportional to 2^-length + log(probability it assigned to the observations so far).
That said, I was not suggesting a solomonoff inductor in which some machines were outputting bits and others were outputting probabilities.
I suspect that there’s a miscommunication somewhere up the line, and my not-terribly-charitable-guess is that it stems from you misunderstanding the formalism of Solomonoff induction and/or the point I was making about it. I do not expect to clarify further, alas. I’d welcome someone else hopping in if they think they see the point I was making & can transmit it.