I’m not a statistically significant study, but given “The agent’s husband stood up from the table,” I would expect pretty much everyone to assume without much effort that the agent was female, but given “The agent led his husband onto the dance floor,” I’d expect most people to become confused, and some to assume a gay male agent, and very few to assume a female agent.
That suggests that the “his” gets treated as evidence of the referent’s masculinity strong enough to override a strong prior in the other direction.
My predisposition to assume that an agent is male is stronger than my predisposition to assume heteronormative relationships. My immediate reaction to the sentence, “The agent’s husband stood up from the table” was to suppose a male agent with a male spouse. But I’m probably unusual in this regard.
I’m not a statistically significant study, but given “The agent’s husband stood up from the table,” I would expect pretty much everyone to assume without much effort that the agent was female, but given “The agent led his husband onto the dance floor,” I’d expect most people to become confused, and some to assume a gay male agent, and very few to assume a female agent.
That suggests that the “his” gets treated as evidence of the referent’s masculinity strong enough to override a strong prior in the other direction.
My predisposition to assume that an agent is male is stronger than my predisposition to assume heteronormative relationships. My immediate reaction to the sentence, “The agent’s husband stood up from the table” was to suppose a male agent with a male spouse. But I’m probably unusual in this regard.
I agree with your analysis but I’d like to see some form of formal study confirm it.