Okay then I don’t understand the main point.
“No sex without explicit consent before marriage” seems to be a lot less restrictive then “No sex before marriage”.
I can’t see how you find the second a good norm but don’t like the first norm.
Okay then I don’t understand the main point.
“No sex without explicit consent before marriage” seems to be a lot less restrictive then “No sex before marriage”.
I can’t see how you find the second a good norm but don’t like the first norm.