The non-existence of universally compelling arguments has nothing to do with whether “the criterion of truth is knowable”, or “epistemic circularity”, or any other abstruse epistemic issues, or any other non-abstruse epistemic issues.
There cannot be a universally compelling argument because for any given argument, there can exist a mind which is not persuaded by it.
If it were the case that “the criterion of truth is knowable” (whatever that means), and you had what you considered to be a universally compelling argument, I could still build a mind which remains—stubbornly, irrationally (?), impenetrably—unconvinced by that argument. And that would make that argument not universally compelling after all.
The non-existence of universally compelling arguments has nothing to do with whether “the criterion of truth is knowable”, or “epistemic circularity”, or any other abstruse epistemic issues, or any other non-abstruse epistemic issues.
There cannot be a universally compelling argument because for any given argument, there can exist a mind which is not persuaded by it.
This feels to me similar to saying “don’t worry about all that physics telling us we can’t travel faster than light, we have engineering reasons to think we can’t do it” as if this were a dismissal of the former when it’s in fact an expression of it. Further, Eliezer doesn’t really prove his point in that post if you want a detailed philosophical explanation of the point. Instead, as is often the case, Eliezer is smart and manages to come to a conclusion consistent with the philosophical details despite making arguments at a level where it’s not totally clear he can support the claims he’s making (which is fine because he wasn’t writing to do that, but it does make his words on the subject less relevant here because they’re talking to a different level of abstraction).
Thus, it seems that you’re just agreeing with me even if you’re talking at a different level of abstraction, but I take it from your tone you meant to disagree, so maybe you meant to press some other point that’s not clear to me from what you wrote?
The reason I cited is not an “engineering reason”; it is fundamental. It seems absurd to say that it’s “an expression of” something like “epistemic circularity”. A more apt analogy would be to computability theory. If we make some assertion in computer science, and in support of that assertion, prove that we can, or cannot, construct some particular sort of computer program, is that an “engineering reason”? Applying such a term seems tendentious, at best.
Further, Eliezer doesn’t really prove his point in that post if you want a detailed philosophical explanation of the point.
If you disagree with Eliezer’s arguments in that post, I would be interested in reading what you have to say (as would others, I am sure).
Thus, it seems that you’re just agreeing with me even if you’re talking at a different level of abstraction, but I take it from your tone you meant to disagree, so maybe you meant to press some other point that’s not clear to me from what you wrote?
You said:
I don’t see a natural space into which you could claim the criterion of truth is knowable and that there are no universally compelling arguments
The phrasing is odd (“natural space”? “into”?), but unless there is some very odd meaning hiding behind that phrasing, what you seem to be saying is that if “the criterion of truth is knowable” then there must exist universally compelling arguments. (Because ¬(P ∧ ¬Q) ⇒ (P → Q).)
And I am saying: this is wrong and confused. If “the criterion of truth is knowable”, that has exactly zero to do with whether there exist universally compelling arguments. Criterion of truth or no criterion of truth, I can always build a mind which fails to be convinced by any given argument you propose. Therefore, any argument you propose will fail to be universally compelling.
This is what Eliezer was saying. It is very simple. If you disagree with this reasoning, do please explain why! (And in that case it would be best, I think, if you posted your disagreement as a comment to Eliezer’s post. I will, of course, gladly read it.)
And I am saying: this is wrong and confused. If “the criterion of truth is knowable”, that has exactly zero to do with whether there exist universally compelling arguments. Criterion of truth or no criterion of truth, I can always build a mind which fails to be convinced by any given argument you propose. Therefore, any argument you propose will fail to be universally compelling.
So I don’t disagree with Eliezer’s post at all; I’m saying he doesn’t give a complete argument for the position. It seems to me the only point of disagreement is that you think knowability of the criterion of truth does not imply the existence of universally compelling arguments, so let me spell that out. This is to say, why is it that you can build a mind that fails to be convinced by any given argument, because Eliezer only intimates this and doesn’t fully explain it.
Suppose we know the criterion of truth, C; that is, there exists (not counterfactually but actually as in anyone can observe this thing) a procedure/algorithm to assess if any given statement is true. Let P be a statement. Then there exists some argument, A, contingent on C such that A implies P or ~P. Thus for all P we can know if P or ~P. This would make A universally compelling, i.e. A is a mind-independent argument for the truth value of all statements that would convince even rocks.
Since it seems we’re all in agreement C does not exist, I think any disagreement we have lingering is about something other than the point I originally laid out.
Also, for what it’s worth since you bring up computability theory, knowing the criterion of truth would also imply being able to solve the halting problem since you could always answer the question “does this program halt?”.
(Also, I love the irony that I may fail to convince you because no argument is universally compelling!)
Suppose we know the criterion of truth, C; that is, there exists (not counterfactually but actually as in anyone can observe this thing) a procedure/algorithm to assess if any given statement is true. Let P be a statement. Then there exists some argument, A, contingent on C such that A implies P or ~P. Thus for all P we can know if P or ~P. This would make A universally compelling
But of course it wouldn’t. What? This seems completely unrelated to compellingness (universal or otherwise). I have but to build a mind that does not implement the procedure in question, or doesn’t implement it for some specific argument(s), or does implement it but then someone reverses it (cf. Eliezer’s “little grey man”), etc.
a mind-independent argument for
There is no such thing as a “mind-independent argument for” anything. That, too, was Eliezer’s point.
For example, suppose C exists. However, it is then an open question where I believe that C exists. How might I come to believe this? Perhaps I might be presented with an argument for C’s existence. I might find this argument compelling, or not. This is dependent on my mind—i.e., both on my mind existing, and on various specific properties of my mind (such as implementing modus ponens).
And who is doing this attempted convincing? Well, perhaps you are. You believe (in this hypothetical scenario) that C exists. And how did you come to believe this? Whatever the chain of causality was that led to this state of affairs, it could only be very much dependent on various properties of your mind.
Again, a “mind-independent argument” for anything is a nonsensical concept. Who is arguing, and with whom? Who is trying to convince whom? Without minds, the very concept of there being arguments, and those arguments being compelling or not compelling, is meaningless.
This is to say, why is it that you can build a mind that fails to be convinced by any given argument, because Eliezer only intimates this and doesn’t fully explain it.
But he does. He explains it very clearly and explicitly! Building a mind that behaves in some specific way in some specific circumstance(s) is all that’s required. Simply build a mind that, when presented with argument A, finds that argument unconvincing. (Again, see the “little grey man” section.) That is all.
Yes, exactly, you get it. I’m not sure what confusion remains or you think remains. The only point seems here:
But of course it wouldn’t. What? This seems completely unrelated to compellingness (universal or otherwise). I have but to build a mind that does not implement the procedure in question, or doesn’t implement it for some specific argument(s), or does implement it but then someone reverses it (cf. Eliezer’s “little grey man”), etc.
The counterfactual I’m proposing with C is exactly one that would allow not just any mind, but literally anything at all to comprehend A. The existence of C would create a universe wholly unlike our own, which is why I think we’re all in agreement that the existence of such a thing is extremely unlikely even though we can’t formally prove that it doesn’t exist.
It seems that you don’t get it. Said just demonstrated that even if C exists it wouldn’t imply a universally compelling argument.
In other words, this:
Suppose we know the criterion of truth, C; that is, there exists (not counterfactually but actually as in anyone can observe this thing) a procedure/algorithm to assess if any given statement is true. Let P be a statement. Then there exists some argument, A, contingent on C such that A implies P or ~P. Thus for all P we can know if P or ~P.
This would make A universally compelling, i.e. A is a mind-independent argument for the truth value of all statements that would convince even rocks.
appears to be a total non sequitur. How does the existence of an algorithm enable you to convince a rock of anything? At a minimum, an algorithm needs to be implemented on a computer… Your statement, and therefore your conclusion that C doesn’t exist, doesn’t follow at all.
(Note: In this comment, I am not claiming that C (as you’ve defined it) exists, or agreeing that it needs to exist for any of my criticisms to hold.)
It seems that you don’t get it. Said just demonstrated that even if C exists it wouldn’t imply a universally compelling argument.
So what? Neither the existence or non existence of a Criterion of Truth that is persuasive to our minds is implied by the (non) existence of universally compelling arguments. The issue of universally compelling arguments is a red herring.
See my other comment, but assuming to know something about how to compute C would just already be part of C by definition. It’s very hard to talk about the criterion of truth without accidentally saying something that implies it’s not true because it’s an unknowable thing we can’t grasp onto. C is basically a statement that, if included in a valid argument about the truth of P, causes the argument to tell us either P or ~P. That’s definitionally what it means to be able to know the criterion of truth.
That you want to deny C is great, because I think (as I’m finding with Said), that we already agree, and any disagreement is the consequence of misunderstanding, probably because it comes too close to sounding to you like a position that I would also reject, and the rest of the fundamental disagreement is one of sentiment, perspective, having worked out the details, and emphasis.
C is basically a statement that, if included in a valid argument about the truth of P, causes the argument to tell us either P or ~P. That’s definitionally what it means to be able to know the criterion of truth.
That’s not how algorithms work and seems… incoherent.
That you want to deny C is great,
I did not say that either.
because I think (as I’m finding with Said), that we already agree, and any disagreement is the consequence of misunderstanding, probably because it comes too close to sounding to you like a position that I would also reject, and the rest of the fundamental disagreement is one of sentiment, perspective, having worked out the details, and emphasis.
No, I don’t think we do agree. It seems to me you’re deeply confused about all of this stuff.
Here’s an exercise: Say that we replace “C” by a specific concrete algorithm. For instance the elementary long multiplication algorithm used by primary school children to multiply numbers.
Does anything whatsoever about your argument change with this substitution? Have we proved that we can explain multiplication to a rock? Or perhaps we’ve proved that this algorithm doesn’t exist, and neither do schools?
Another exercise: suppose, as a counterfactual, that Laplace’s demon exists, and furthermore likes answering questions. Now we can take a specific algorithm C: “ask the demon your question, and await the answer, which will be received within the minute”. By construction this algorithm always returns the correct answer. Now, your task is to give the algorithm, given only these premises, that I can follow to convince a rock that Euclid’s theorem is true.
Given that I still think after all this trying that you are confused and that I never wanted to put this much work into the comments on this post, I give up trying to explain further as we are making no progress. I unfortunately just don’t have the energy to devote to this right now to see it through. Sorry.
The counterfactual I’m proposing with C is exactly one that would allow not just any mind, but literally anything at all to comprehend A. The existence of C would create a universe wholly unlike our own, which is why I think we’re all in agreement that the existence of such a thing is extremely unlikely even though we can’t formally prove that it doesn’t exist.
Ok, this is… far weirder than anything I thought you had in mind when you talked about the “knowability of the criterion of truth”. As far as I can tell, this scenario is… incoherent. Certainly it’s extremely bizarre. I guess you agree with that part, at least.
But… what is it that you think the non-reality of this scenario implies? How do you get from “our universe is not, in fact, at all like this bizarre possibly-incoherent hypothetical scenario” to… anything about rationality, in our universe?
Well if you don’t have C, then you have to build up the truth some other way because you don’t have the ability to ground yourself directly in it because truth exists in the map rather than the territory. So then you are left to ground yourself in what you do find in the territory, and I’d describe the thing you find there as telos or will rather than truth because it doesn’t really look like truth. Truth is a thing we have to create for ourselves rather than extract. The rest follows from that.
Sorry, I mean to say “A is a mind-independent argument for the truth value of P and there exists by our construction such an A for all P that would convince even rocks”.
How would you convince rocks?! What in the world does that have to do with there existing or not existing some observable procedure that shows whether something is true?
First, you defined C, a.k.a. the “criterion of truth”, like this:
Suppose we know the criterion of truth, C; that is, there exists (not counterfactually but actually as in anyone can observe this thing) a procedure/algorithm to assess if any given statement is true.
Ok, that’s only mildly impossible, let’s see where this leads us…
But then, you say:
The counterfactual I’m proposing with C is exactly one that would allow not just any mind, but literally anything at all to comprehend A. The existence of C would create a universe wholly unlike our own, which is why I think we’re all in agreement that the existence of such a thing is extremely unlikely even though we can’t formally prove that it doesn’t exist.
Why should the thing you defined in the first quote, lead to anything even remotely resembling the second quote? There is no reason, as far as I can tell; the latter quote just adds extremely impossible magic, out of nowhere and for no reason.
There is no reason, as far as I can tell; the latter quote just adds extremely impossible magic, out of nowhere and for no reason.
I’m saying the thing in the first quote, saying C exists, is the extremely impossible magic. I guess I don’t know how to convey this part of the argument any more clearly, as it seems to me to follow directly and objections I can think of to it hinge on assuming things you would know contingent on what you think about C and thus are not admissible here.
Maybe it would help if I gave an example? Let’s say C exists. Okay, great, now we can tell if things are true independent of any mind since C is a real fact of the world, not a belief (it’s part of the territory). Now I can establish as a matter of fact (or rather we have no way to express this correctly, but the fact can be established independent of any subject) whether or not the sky is blue independent of any observer because there is an argument contingent on C which tells us whether the statement “the sky is blue” is true or false. Now this statement is true or false in the territory and not in necessarily in any map. We’d say this is a realist position rather than an anti-realist one. This would have to mean then that this fact would be true for anything we might treat as a subject of which we could ask “does X know the fact of the matter about whether or not the sky is blue”. Thus we could ask if a rock knows whether or not the sky is blue and it would be a meaningful question about a matter of fact and not a category error like it is when we deny the knowability of C because then we have taken an anti-realist position. This is what I’m trying to say about saying there are universally compelling arguments if we assume C: the truth of matters then shifts from existing in the map to existing in the territory, and so now there can be universally compelling arguments for things that are true even if the subject is too dumb to understand them they will still be true for them regardless.
I’m not sure that helps but that’s the best I can think up right now.
I’m also a bit confused about your definition of C.
Suppose we know the criterion of truth, C; that is, there exists (not counterfactually but actually as in anyone can observe this thing) a procedure/algorithm to assess if any given statement is true.
Suppose there exists a special magic eight ball that shows the word “true” or “false” when you shake it after making any statement, and that it always gives the correct answer.
Would you agree that use of this special magic eight ball represents a “procedure/algorithm to assess if any given statement is true”, and so anyone who knows how to use the magic eight ball knows the criterion of truth?
If so, I don’t see how you get from there to saying that a rock must be convinced, or really that anyone must therefore be convinced of anything.
Just because there exists a procedure for assessing truth (absolutely correctly), doesn’t therefore mean that everyone uses that procedure, right?
Suppose that Alice has never seen nor heard of the magic eight ball, and does not know it exists. Just the fact that it exists doesn’t imply anything about her state of mind, does it?
Was there supposed to be some part of the definition of C that my magic eight ball story doesn’t capture, which implies that it represents a universally compelling argument?
Just being able to give the correct answer to any yes/no question does not seem like it’s enough to be universally compelling.
EDIT: If the hypothetical was not A) “there exists… a procedure to (correctly) assess if any given statement is true”, but rather B) “every mind has access to and in fact uses a procedure that correctly assesses if any given statement is true”, then I would agree that the hypothetical implies universally compelling arguments.
Do you mean to be supposing B rather than A when you talk about the hypothetical criterion of truth?
I’m not nshepperd, but:
The non-existence of universally compelling arguments has nothing to do with whether “the criterion of truth is knowable”, or “epistemic circularity”, or any other abstruse epistemic issues, or any other non-abstruse epistemic issues.
There cannot be a universally compelling argument because for any given argument, there can exist a mind which is not persuaded by it.
If it were the case that “the criterion of truth is knowable” (whatever that means), and you had what you considered to be a universally compelling argument, I could still build a mind which remains—stubbornly, irrationally (?), impenetrably—unconvinced by that argument. And that would make that argument not universally compelling after all.
There is nothing esoteric about any of this; Eliezer explained it all very clearly in the Sequences.
This feels to me similar to saying “don’t worry about all that physics telling us we can’t travel faster than light, we have engineering reasons to think we can’t do it” as if this were a dismissal of the former when it’s in fact an expression of it. Further, Eliezer doesn’t really prove his point in that post if you want a detailed philosophical explanation of the point. Instead, as is often the case, Eliezer is smart and manages to come to a conclusion consistent with the philosophical details despite making arguments at a level where it’s not totally clear he can support the claims he’s making (which is fine because he wasn’t writing to do that, but it does make his words on the subject less relevant here because they’re talking to a different level of abstraction).
Thus, it seems that you’re just agreeing with me even if you’re talking at a different level of abstraction, but I take it from your tone you meant to disagree, so maybe you meant to press some other point that’s not clear to me from what you wrote?
The reason I cited is not an “engineering reason”; it is fundamental. It seems absurd to say that it’s “an expression of” something like “epistemic circularity”. A more apt analogy would be to computability theory. If we make some assertion in computer science, and in support of that assertion, prove that we can, or cannot, construct some particular sort of computer program, is that an “engineering reason”? Applying such a term seems tendentious, at best.
If you disagree with Eliezer’s arguments in that post, I would be interested in reading what you have to say (as would others, I am sure).
You said:
The phrasing is odd (“natural space”? “into”?), but unless there is some very odd meaning hiding behind that phrasing, what you seem to be saying is that if “the criterion of truth is knowable” then there must exist universally compelling arguments. (Because ¬(P ∧ ¬Q) ⇒ (P → Q).)
And I am saying: this is wrong and confused. If “the criterion of truth is knowable”, that has exactly zero to do with whether there exist universally compelling arguments. Criterion of truth or no criterion of truth, I can always build a mind which fails to be convinced by any given argument you propose. Therefore, any argument you propose will fail to be universally compelling.
This is what Eliezer was saying. It is very simple. If you disagree with this reasoning, do please explain why! (And in that case it would be best, I think, if you posted your disagreement as a comment to Eliezer’s post. I will, of course, gladly read it.)
So I don’t disagree with Eliezer’s post at all; I’m saying he doesn’t give a complete argument for the position. It seems to me the only point of disagreement is that you think knowability of the criterion of truth does not imply the existence of universally compelling arguments, so let me spell that out. This is to say, why is it that you can build a mind that fails to be convinced by any given argument, because Eliezer only intimates this and doesn’t fully explain it.
Suppose we know the criterion of truth, C; that is, there exists (not counterfactually but actually as in anyone can observe this thing) a procedure/algorithm to assess if any given statement is true. Let P be a statement. Then there exists some argument, A, contingent on C such that A implies P or ~P. Thus for all P we can know if P or ~P. This would make A universally compelling, i.e. A is a mind-independent argument for the truth value of all statements that would convince even rocks.
Since it seems we’re all in agreement C does not exist, I think any disagreement we have lingering is about something other than the point I originally laid out.
Also, for what it’s worth since you bring up computability theory, knowing the criterion of truth would also imply being able to solve the halting problem since you could always answer the question “does this program halt?”.
(Also, I love the irony that I may fail to convince you because no argument is universally compelling!)
But of course it wouldn’t. What? This seems completely unrelated to compellingness (universal or otherwise). I have but to build a mind that does not implement the procedure in question, or doesn’t implement it for some specific argument(s), or does implement it but then someone reverses it (cf. Eliezer’s “little grey man”), etc.
There is no such thing as a “mind-independent argument for” anything. That, too, was Eliezer’s point.
For example, suppose C exists. However, it is then an open question where I believe that C exists. How might I come to believe this? Perhaps I might be presented with an argument for C’s existence. I might find this argument compelling, or not. This is dependent on my mind—i.e., both on my mind existing, and on various specific properties of my mind (such as implementing modus ponens).
And who is doing this attempted convincing? Well, perhaps you are. You believe (in this hypothetical scenario) that C exists. And how did you come to believe this? Whatever the chain of causality was that led to this state of affairs, it could only be very much dependent on various properties of your mind.
Again, a “mind-independent argument” for anything is a nonsensical concept. Who is arguing, and with whom? Who is trying to convince whom? Without minds, the very concept of there being arguments, and those arguments being compelling or not compelling, is meaningless.
But he does. He explains it very clearly and explicitly! Building a mind that behaves in some specific way in some specific circumstance(s) is all that’s required. Simply build a mind that, when presented with argument A, finds that argument unconvincing. (Again, see the “little grey man” section.) That is all.
Yes, exactly, you get it. I’m not sure what confusion remains or you think remains. The only point seems here:
The counterfactual I’m proposing with C is exactly one that would allow not just any mind, but literally anything at all to comprehend A. The existence of C would create a universe wholly unlike our own, which is why I think we’re all in agreement that the existence of such a thing is extremely unlikely even though we can’t formally prove that it doesn’t exist.
It seems that you don’t get it. Said just demonstrated that even if C exists it wouldn’t imply a universally compelling argument.
In other words, this:
appears to be a total non sequitur. How does the existence of an algorithm enable you to convince a rock of anything? At a minimum, an algorithm needs to be implemented on a computer… Your statement, and therefore your conclusion that C doesn’t exist, doesn’t follow at all.
(Note: In this comment, I am not claiming that C (as you’ve defined it) exists, or agreeing that it needs to exist for any of my criticisms to hold.)
So what? Neither the existence or non existence of a Criterion of Truth that is persuasive to our minds is implied by the (non) existence of universally compelling arguments. The issue of universally compelling arguments is a red herring.
See my other comment, but assuming to know something about how to compute C would just already be part of C by definition. It’s very hard to talk about the criterion of truth without accidentally saying something that implies it’s not true because it’s an unknowable thing we can’t grasp onto. C is basically a statement that, if included in a valid argument about the truth of P, causes the argument to tell us either P or ~P. That’s definitionally what it means to be able to know the criterion of truth.
That you want to deny C is great, because I think (as I’m finding with Said), that we already agree, and any disagreement is the consequence of misunderstanding, probably because it comes too close to sounding to you like a position that I would also reject, and the rest of the fundamental disagreement is one of sentiment, perspective, having worked out the details, and emphasis.
That’s not how algorithms work and seems… incoherent.
I did not say that either.
No, I don’t think we do agree. It seems to me you’re deeply confused about all of this stuff.
Here’s an exercise: Say that we replace “C” by a specific concrete algorithm. For instance the elementary long multiplication algorithm used by primary school children to multiply numbers.
Does anything whatsoever about your argument change with this substitution? Have we proved that we can explain multiplication to a rock? Or perhaps we’ve proved that this algorithm doesn’t exist, and neither do schools?
Another exercise: suppose, as a counterfactual, that Laplace’s demon exists, and furthermore likes answering questions. Now we can take a specific algorithm C: “ask the demon your question, and await the answer, which will be received within the minute”. By construction this algorithm always returns the correct answer. Now, your task is to give the algorithm, given only these premises, that I can follow to convince a rock that Euclid’s theorem is true.
Given that I still think after all this trying that you are confused and that I never wanted to put this much work into the comments on this post, I give up trying to explain further as we are making no progress. I unfortunately just don’t have the energy to devote to this right now to see it through. Sorry.
Ok, this is… far weirder than anything I thought you had in mind when you talked about the “knowability of the criterion of truth”. As far as I can tell, this scenario is… incoherent. Certainly it’s extremely bizarre. I guess you agree with that part, at least.
But… what is it that you think the non-reality of this scenario implies? How do you get from “our universe is not, in fact, at all like this bizarre possibly-incoherent hypothetical scenario” to… anything about rationality, in our universe?
Well if you don’t have C, then you have to build up the truth some other way because you don’t have the ability to ground yourself directly in it because truth exists in the map rather than the territory. So then you are left to ground yourself in what you do find in the territory, and I’d describe the thing you find there as telos or will rather than truth because it doesn’t really look like truth. Truth is a thing we have to create for ourselves rather than extract. The rest follows from that.
Sorry, I mean to say “A is a mind-independent argument for the truth value of P and there exists by our construction such an A for all P that would convince even rocks”.
How would you convince rocks?! What in the world does that have to do with there existing or not existing some observable procedure that shows whether something is true?
How would you tell if you had convinced a rock of something? Why is it important whether or not you can convince a rock of something?
Eliezer uses “convincing a rock” as a self-evidently absurd reductio, but it sounds like you don’t actually see it that way?
Yep, I agree, which is why I point it out as something absurd that would be true if the counterfactual existence of C were instead factual.
But you’ve done a sleight of hand!
First, you defined C, a.k.a. the “criterion of truth”, like this:
Ok, that’s only mildly impossible, let’s see where this leads us…
But then, you say:
Why should the thing you defined in the first quote, lead to anything even remotely resembling the second quote? There is no reason, as far as I can tell; the latter quote just adds extremely impossible magic, out of nowhere and for no reason.
I’m saying the thing in the first quote, saying C exists, is the extremely impossible magic. I guess I don’t know how to convey this part of the argument any more clearly, as it seems to me to follow directly and objections I can think of to it hinge on assuming things you would know contingent on what you think about C and thus are not admissible here.
Maybe it would help if I gave an example? Let’s say C exists. Okay, great, now we can tell if things are true independent of any mind since C is a real fact of the world, not a belief (it’s part of the territory). Now I can establish as a matter of fact (or rather we have no way to express this correctly, but the fact can be established independent of any subject) whether or not the sky is blue independent of any observer because there is an argument contingent on C which tells us whether the statement “the sky is blue” is true or false. Now this statement is true or false in the territory and not in necessarily in any map. We’d say this is a realist position rather than an anti-realist one. This would have to mean then that this fact would be true for anything we might treat as a subject of which we could ask “does X know the fact of the matter about whether or not the sky is blue”. Thus we could ask if a rock knows whether or not the sky is blue and it would be a meaningful question about a matter of fact and not a category error like it is when we deny the knowability of C because then we have taken an anti-realist position. This is what I’m trying to say about saying there are universally compelling arguments if we assume C: the truth of matters then shifts from existing in the map to existing in the territory, and so now there can be universally compelling arguments for things that are true even if the subject is too dumb to understand them they will still be true for them regardless.
I’m not sure that helps but that’s the best I can think up right now.
I’m also a bit confused about your definition of C.
Suppose there exists a special magic eight ball that shows the word “true” or “false” when you shake it after making any statement, and that it always gives the correct answer.
Would you agree that use of this special magic eight ball represents a “procedure/algorithm to assess if any given statement is true”, and so anyone who knows how to use the magic eight ball knows the criterion of truth?
If so, I don’t see how you get from there to saying that a rock must be convinced, or really that anyone must therefore be convinced of anything.
Just because there exists a procedure for assessing truth (absolutely correctly), doesn’t therefore mean that everyone uses that procedure, right?
Suppose that Alice has never seen nor heard of the magic eight ball, and does not know it exists. Just the fact that it exists doesn’t imply anything about her state of mind, does it?
Was there supposed to be some part of the definition of C that my magic eight ball story doesn’t capture, which implies that it represents a universally compelling argument?
Just being able to give the correct answer to any yes/no question does not seem like it’s enough to be universally compelling.
EDIT: If the hypothetical was not A) “there exists… a procedure to (correctly) assess if any given statement is true”, but rather B) “every mind has access to and in fact uses a procedure that correctly assesses if any given statement is true”, then I would agree that the hypothetical implies universally compelling arguments.
Do you mean to be supposing B rather than A when you talk about the hypothetical criterion of truth?