According to Howard, wave function collapse is not mentioned in the writings of Bohr.[4]Some argue that the concept of the collapse of a “real” wave function was introduced by Heisenberg and later developed by John von Neumann in 1932.[23] However, Heisenberg spoke of the wavefunction as representing available knowledge of a system, and did not use the term “collapse” per se, but instead termed it “reduction” of the wavefunction to a new state representing the change in available knowledge which occurs once a particular phenomenon is registered by the apparatus (often called “measurement”).[24]
Note also that the objective function theories were put forward as novel theories, by people who were familiar with content of CI, at a much later period than the Bohr-Heisenberg discussions: the Penrose interpretation dates to the late 90s, GRW from 1985.
The CI was somewhat minimal interpretation, that posits some sort of transition between the quantum realm and classical information during measurement, but says little about its nature. That left the field open for other interpretations to be more specific about collapse/projection/measurement, variously portraying it as objective, subjective, actually decoherence, etc.
Are you arguing that it isn’t?
Yes
From wikipedia :
According to Howard, wave function collapse is not mentioned in the writings of Bohr.[4]Some argue that the concept of the collapse of a “real” wave function was introduced by Heisenberg and later developed by John von Neumann in 1932.[23] However, Heisenberg spoke of the wavefunction as representing available knowledge of a system, and did not use the term “collapse” per se, but instead termed it “reduction” of the wavefunction to a new state representing the change in available knowledge which occurs once a particular phenomenon is registered by the apparatus (often called “measurement”).[24]
Note also that the objective function theories were put forward as novel theories, by people who were familiar with content of CI, at a much later period than the Bohr-Heisenberg discussions: the Penrose interpretation dates to the late 90s, GRW from 1985.
So the collapse only exists in straw-Copenhagen? Or is it yet another scientific theory that popularly gets mistaken for Copenhagen interpretation?
The CI was somewhat minimal interpretation, that posits some sort of transition between the quantum realm and classical information during measurement, but says little about its nature. That left the field open for other interpretations to be more specific about collapse/projection/measurement, variously portraying it as objective, subjective, actually decoherence, etc.