I’m not sure what Solomon’s Problem means. If I make up a really convincing argument that the king should (or shouldn’t) send for another man’s wife, and communicate it to the king, am I thus forcing him to “always have been” charismatic or otherwise? How is this conditioning on actions supposed to work? Does adopting a certain decision theory make you retroactively charismatic?
Also I don’t understand why the problem is named this way. In the prototypical example from the Bible, king David sends for Uriah’s wife Bathsheba, and Solomon is their son. What.
Also I don’t understand why the problem is named this way. In the prototypical example from the Bible, king David sends for Uriah’s wife Bathsheba, and Solomon is their son. What.
Well, it’s definitely become a problem for Solomon at that point...
Also I don’t understand why the problem is named this way. In the prototypical example from the Bible, king David sends for Uriah’s wife Bathsheba, and Solomon is their son. What.
And Solomon already had pretty much all the wives to himself from what I recall...
I’m not sure what Solomon’s Problem means. If I make up a really convincing argument that the king should (or shouldn’t) send for another man’s wife, and communicate it to the king, am I thus forcing him to “always have been” charismatic or otherwise? How is this conditioning on actions supposed to work? Does adopting a certain decision theory make you retroactively charismatic?
Also I don’t understand why the problem is named this way. In the prototypical example from the Bible, king David sends for Uriah’s wife Bathsheba, and Solomon is their son. What.
Well, it’s definitely become a problem for Solomon at that point...
And Solomon already had pretty much all the wives to himself from what I recall...