Nice paper. Signs are treated accurately there of course.
However call to “formal functions” in the end of the proof seems wacky at best. Formalizing it looks harder to me than the initial statement. At this point it should be easier to just look at the smoothness degrees of the norm on x_i = 0 hyperplanes.
If anybody knows what was meant, however, please clarify.
Thank you.
Nice paper. Signs are treated accurately there of course. However call to “formal functions” in the end of the proof seems wacky at best. Formalizing it looks harder to me than the initial statement. At this point it should be easier to just look at the smoothness degrees of the norm on x_i = 0 hyperplanes.
If anybody knows what was meant, however, please clarify.