How one would operationalise questions about what a property is?
It would be hard to update your propabilities if you are unsure what the evidence is and whether you have seen it. In a straighforward formulation on bayesian updating what the evidence is is unproblematic. In order fo bayesian updating to be relevant evidence and hypothesis needs to have different epistemological character. You can not make the system work with all hypotheses, you need evidence-type things aswell so you can not do without infallibility.
Negation of “All knowledge can be infallibly founded” is “There exists knowledge that can’t not be infallibly founded”. Negation of “There exists a bit of infallible knowledge” is “All knowledge is incapable of being founded infallibly”. Sure thinking that most interesting types of knowledge is fallible is a workable direction. But one can not have a map-territority mismatch if there is no map. While reading random scribbles on a map tells nothing of the outside world it does tell of the existence of the map itself. If one would need to guess what is written on the map, there would be a need to represent a map. But why wouldn’t you need a map to read such a meta-map? (see also wittgenstein about requiring instruction books how to read signs). One can avoid an infinite regression if there is a level of map that just gets used (a map that doesn’t require a map to use).
The suggested reading is so wide that it not a practical method of addressing disagreement. And I am already familiar with a lot of it. Which parts you think are relevant here?
How one would operationalise questions about what a property is?
It would be hard to update your propabilities if you are unsure what the evidence is and whether you have seen it. In a straighforward formulation on bayesian updating what the evidence is is unproblematic. In order fo bayesian updating to be relevant evidence and hypothesis needs to have different epistemological character. You can not make the system work with all hypotheses, you need evidence-type things aswell so you can not do without infallibility.
Negation of “All knowledge can be infallibly founded” is “There exists knowledge that can’t not be infallibly founded”. Negation of “There exists a bit of infallible knowledge” is “All knowledge is incapable of being founded infallibly”. Sure thinking that most interesting types of knowledge is fallible is a workable direction. But one can not have a map-territority mismatch if there is no map. While reading random scribbles on a map tells nothing of the outside world it does tell of the existence of the map itself. If one would need to guess what is written on the map, there would be a need to represent a map. But why wouldn’t you need a map to read such a meta-map? (see also wittgenstein about requiring instruction books how to read signs). One can avoid an infinite regression if there is a level of map that just gets used (a map that doesn’t require a map to use).
The suggested reading is so wide that it not a practical method of addressing disagreement. And I am already familiar with a lot of it. Which parts you think are relevant here?