What I mean is that the distribution has a crazy variance (possibly no finite variance); take two “opportunities to do good” and compare them to each other, and an orders-of-magnitude difference is not rare.
Do you mean the differences between the expected utility upfront? Or do you mean the differences between the actual utility in the end (which the actor might have no way to accurately predict in advance)?
Do you mean the differences between the expected utility upfront? Or do you mean the differences between the actual utility in the end (which the actor might have no way to accurately predict in advance)?
I reject the principled distinction. To me, it’s more of a spectrum.