I think I can see why instrumental rationality could be regarded as just part and parcel of epistemic rationality. Once the probabilities have been rationally evaluated, what work is left for “instrumental reason” to do? Am I on the right track at all? If not, please elaborate.
I think I can see why instrumental rationality could be regarded as just part and parcel of epistemic rationality. Once the probabilities have been rationally evaluated, what work is left for “instrumental reason” to do? Am I on the right track at all? If not, please elaborate.