From Omnilibrium:
cleonid
Karma: 304
From Omnilibrium:
There are two noticeable differences between the optimate/populare and the traditional left-wing/right-wing politics:
1) Traditional politics is much better approximated by a binary. Person’s views on one significant issue, such as feminism, pretty accurately predict positions on foreign policy, economics and environmental issues. By comparison, optimate/populare labels have much less predictive power. While there is a significant correlation between populare (optimate) and left (right)-wing views on economics and foreign policy, both optimates and populares are much more likely to cross ideological lines on individual issues.
2) On average, both populares and optimates are more libertarian and less religious than the traditional left and right.
If the number of extended discussions is uncorrelated with the post’s karma (except maybe for strongly downvoted posts), and the number of extended discussion comments dominates the number of total comments, then that is evidence that correlations between the number of total comments and the post’s karma are spurious.
If the number of extended discussions is uncorrelated with the post’s karma, then they would simply add a random noise component to the graph. I think it’s pretty obvious from the graph that the signal to noise ratio is quite high.
That would require a non-trivial amount of work. Is there a particular reason you are interested in this?
The former would count many extended discussions that often have little to do with the OP.
Is there a reason to think that the number of extended discussions that have little to do with the OP is higher for articles with negative karma? If not, counting the total number or just the top-level comments should not affect the conclusions.
there are more than just two opposite or pro/con positions, and many more things to say on a subject than “yes” or “no”
Solving the problem for a simple binary case is a starting point in our tests.
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Recent discussion topics on Omnilibrium:
I don’t think this is possible.
Tay-Sachs allele used to slightly increase evolutionary fitness in heterozygotes (i.e. people who carry just one Tay-Sachs allele). This allowed the allele to increase in frequency until ~3% of Ashkenazis became its carriers. But once the local frequency becomes high enough the negative effects (the risk that a random couple produces children with two Tay-Sachs alleles) balance the positive effects on fitness. Thus in any region it should be impossible for Tay-Sachs to be common for all the grandparents.
There is some reinforcement, but it’s not very significant.
For example, consider an Ashkenazi Tay-Sachs carrier who marries a person from China. If their children mate, the chance that the grandchildren would have Tay-Sachs disease is (1/2)^4=1/16. If instead of a Chinese, this Ashkenazi Tay-Sachs carrier marries another Ashkenazi (who have ~0.03 chance of being a carrier), the chance that the grandchildren would have Tay-Sachs disease is almost the same, ~1/16*1.12. In absence of incest, a grandchild of a Tay-Sachs carrier would have a ~0.03/8 (i.e. ~17 times smaller) chance for getting the disease.
I don’t understand why the origin of grandparents should matter.
To the best of my knowledge, the main problem with incest is recessive alleles. For example, if the grandfather’s genotype is ”aA” (where “a” is a very rare recessive allele) and his children (parents’ generation) mate with each other, then there is a relatively high chance (1/16) that the grandchildren would be of “aa” genotype (which might be extremely deleterious or even lethal). Having another grandparent from a different continent should not change this.
True, but it is virtually impossible to see a meaningful pattern when you have thousands data points on the graph and R2<0.2.
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