Garett Jones’ work seems relevant here. See this and this paper for instance. Short story: IQ has a modest effect on individual earnings but average national IQ has a large effect on a nation’s GDP. He cites spillover effects as the cause, which, if true, renders the question in the OP a bit difficult to answer.
I have not read these papers carefully enough to comment on the statistical work contained therein.
Interesting. It should also be noted that the differences in wealth between different countries would presumably be larger if it hadn’t been for the fact that they communicate with each other. Under-developed nations reap huge benefits from being part of the same world as, e.g. the US, whereas the US does not reap correspondingly large benefits from being part of the same world as them.
That said, one wonders if it couldn’t be that it is higher GDP that causes higher average IQ rather than the other way around. Does he comment on that possibility?
Garett Jones’ work seems relevant here. See this and this paper for instance. Short story: IQ has a modest effect on individual earnings but average national IQ has a large effect on a nation’s GDP. He cites spillover effects as the cause, which, if true, renders the question in the OP a bit difficult to answer.
I have not read these papers carefully enough to comment on the statistical work contained therein.
Interesting. It should also be noted that the differences in wealth between different countries would presumably be larger if it hadn’t been for the fact that they communicate with each other. Under-developed nations reap huge benefits from being part of the same world as, e.g. the US, whereas the US does not reap correspondingly large benefits from being part of the same world as them.
That said, one wonders if it couldn’t be that it is higher GDP that causes higher average IQ rather than the other way around. Does he comment on that possibility?