It seems to privilege the hypothesis to use the factoid of non-standardized DSM use to dismiss a relevant point based on best available evidence. Does Douglas_Knight have reason to believe such possible caveats with DSM use renders the point moot, because I consider it non-obvious that such a factoid completely abolishes Roko’s argument?
It seems flawed to counter a specific finding with a fairly large effect with a general critique of the technique without evidence that this particular example is likely to be biased by it.
IOW, what would Dougles_Knight’s response be if his factoid is either wrong, non-applicable or irrelevant?
Leave a line of retreat.
Hullo?
Edit: I don’t see the relevance of “Leave a line of retreat” to Douglas_Knight’s comment—I would like an explanation.
Sorry, inferential distance.
It seems to privilege the hypothesis to use the factoid of non-standardized DSM use to dismiss a relevant point based on best available evidence. Does Douglas_Knight have reason to believe such possible caveats with DSM use renders the point moot, because I consider it non-obvious that such a factoid completely abolishes Roko’s argument?
It seems flawed to counter a specific finding with a fairly large effect with a general critique of the technique without evidence that this particular example is likely to be biased by it.
IOW, what would Dougles_Knight’s response be if his factoid is either wrong, non-applicable or irrelevant?
It’s a conversation-stopper when used like here.