I am not sure if this counts as an argument per se, but several works of fiction have had instances where a time machine moves a small amount into the future, (say 1 second), and always travels to 1 second ahead of the protagonist, and thus is invisible. Wouldn’t this just give the protagonist a 1 second head start against the villain?
At a time of t=5, both would be visible and present, but the protagonist would have 5 seconds of action time, but the “clever” villain would only have had 4 seconds.
I am not sure if this counts as an argument per se, but several works of fiction have had instances where a time machine moves a small amount into the future, (say 1 second), and always travels to 1 second ahead of the protagonist, and thus is invisible. Wouldn’t this just give the protagonist a 1 second head start against the villain?
At a time of t=5, both would be visible and present, but the protagonist would have 5 seconds of action time, but the “clever” villain would only have had 4 seconds.
The author is conflating space and time, so they think “at t=5, the villain is at t=6, which is not t=5, so they are not here”.