I’m wondering what your argument is that insisting on the existence of moral facts is *not* a (self-)deceptive way of “picking norms based on what someone prefer[s]” in such a way as to make them appear objective, rather than arbitrary.
Even supposing moral facts do exist, it does not follow that humans can, would, or could know them, correct? Therefore, the actual implementation would still fall back on preferences.
I’m wondering what your argument is that insisting on the existence of moral facts is *not* a (self-)deceptive way of “picking norms based on what someone prefer[s]” in such a way as to make them appear objective, rather than arbitrary.
Even supposing moral facts do exist, it does not follow that humans can, would, or could know them, correct? Therefore, the actual implementation would still fall back on preferences.