If you have U0(A)=1 and U0(B)=2, then if we shift it by some constant c to get a new utility function: Uc(A)=1+c and Uc(B)=2+c then we can still get the same result.
If we look at the expected utility, then we get: Certainty of A:
1.0∗U0(A)=U0(A)=1
1.0∗Uc(A)=Uc(A)=1+c
50% chance of B, 50% chance of nothing:
0.5∗U0(B)=0.5∗2=1 (so you are indifferent between certainty of A and a 50% chance of B by U0)
0.5∗Uc(B)=0.5∗(2+c)=1+0.5∗c
I think this might be where you got confused? Now the expected values are different for any nonzero c!
The issue is that it is ignoring the implicit zero. The real second equation is:
0.5∗U0(B)+0.5∗U0(∅)=0.5∗U0(B) + 0 = 1$
0.5∗Uc(B)+0.5∗Uc(∅)=0.5∗(2+c)+0.5∗c=1+0.5c+0.5c=1+c
Which results in the same preference ordering.
Utility functions are shift/scale invariant.
If you have U0(A)=1 and U0(B)=2, then if we shift it by some constant c to get a new utility function: Uc(A)=1+c and Uc(B)=2+c then we can still get the same result.
If we look at the expected utility, then we get:
Certainty of A:
1.0∗U0(A)=U0(A)=1
1.0∗Uc(A)=Uc(A)=1+c
50% chance of B, 50% chance of nothing:
0.5∗U0(B)=0.5∗2=1 (so you are indifferent between certainty of A and a 50% chance of B by U0)
0.5∗Uc(B)=0.5∗(2+c)=1+0.5∗c
I think this might be where you got confused? Now the expected values are different for any nonzero c!
The issue is that it is ignoring the implicit zero. The real second equation is:
0.5∗U0(B)+0.5∗U0(∅)=0.5∗U0(B) + 0 = 1$
0.5∗Uc(B)+0.5∗Uc(∅)=0.5∗(2+c)+0.5∗c=1+0.5c+0.5c=1+c
Which results in the same preference ordering.
Holy heck I have been enlightened. And by contemplating nothingness too! Thanks for the clarification, it all makes sense now.