Don’t really know anything about this subject, but your comment has gone unanswered for 15 days, so I’ll offer some wild speculation.
What model offers an explanation as to why I’d begin to hear voices yet still maintain I’m not schizophrenic despite that being, to me, an obvious, known symptom?
Well, 1) maybe you wouldn’t. Maybe the experience of hearing voices is really compelling, and people by default trust their own senses over a more outside-view perspective. But maybe if you think it through ahead of time and know what to look for you could avoid getting swept away in the delusions. (Though it sounds like it might be pretty exhausting if your mind keeps offering up new, misleading sense data.)
2) Maybe schizophrenia only happens when more goes wrong than just hearing your verbal loop as external. Maybe something about your normal reasoning process is necessarily disrupted at the same time. Or maybe the two are independent, but people who have just the externalized verbal loop or just the reasoning process disruption don’t end up diagnosed as schizophrenics. (Though in that case, where are all the people with an externalized verbal loop who are otherwise normal? Or is that secretly a common thing and I just don’t know it?)
So, there’s a couple thoughts. I hope my unfounded speculation has been helpful :-)
Don’t really know anything about this subject, but your comment has gone unanswered for 15 days, so I’ll offer some wild speculation.
Well, 1) maybe you wouldn’t. Maybe the experience of hearing voices is really compelling, and people by default trust their own senses over a more outside-view perspective. But maybe if you think it through ahead of time and know what to look for you could avoid getting swept away in the delusions. (Though it sounds like it might be pretty exhausting if your mind keeps offering up new, misleading sense data.)
2) Maybe schizophrenia only happens when more goes wrong than just hearing your verbal loop as external. Maybe something about your normal reasoning process is necessarily disrupted at the same time. Or maybe the two are independent, but people who have just the externalized verbal loop or just the reasoning process disruption don’t end up diagnosed as schizophrenics. (Though in that case, where are all the people with an externalized verbal loop who are otherwise normal? Or is that secretly a common thing and I just don’t know it?)
So, there’s a couple thoughts. I hope my unfounded speculation has been helpful :-)