I don’t understand why you think that follows from that passage. I interpret it to mean serial exposure to a series of variant-specific vaccines may reduce overall effectiveness. e.g. Imagining a hypothetical variant sequence of V → V’ → V″. I interpret this as saying if you vaccinate for each with a variant-specific vaccine the effectiveness of the V″ vaccine will be less effective than the original vaccine was for V. Therefore they theorize it may be advantageous to break the chain and e.g. give half the people the V’ vaccine when available while the other half skips V’ and is given V″ vaccine when available.
Their reasoning isn’t entirely clear to me since it’s not clear to me exactly how and by what mechanism(s) the vaccine effectiveness may degrade.
I don’t understand why you think that follows from that passage. I interpret it to mean serial exposure to a series of variant-specific vaccines may reduce overall effectiveness. e.g. Imagining a hypothetical variant sequence of V → V’ → V″. I interpret this as saying if you vaccinate for each with a variant-specific vaccine the effectiveness of the V″ vaccine will be less effective than the original vaccine was for V. Therefore they theorize it may be advantageous to break the chain and e.g. give half the people the V’ vaccine when available while the other half skips V’ and is given V″ vaccine when available.
Their reasoning isn’t entirely clear to me since it’s not clear to me exactly how and by what mechanism(s) the vaccine effectiveness may degrade.