Mateusz Bagiński comments on Generalizing Foundations of Decision Theory

[Mateusz Bagiński]

(Continuity.) If $A⪯B⪯C$, then there exists $p\in [0,1]$ such that a gamble $D$ assigning probability $p$ to $A$ and $(1-p)$ to $B$ satisfies $B\sim D$.

Should be ”$(1-p)$ to $C$”