If you apply Shapley value to a situation where there are more workers than jobs, regardless of how many businesses the jobs are split between, people who can’t get jobs still have a nonzero Shapley value based on their counterfactual contribution to the enterprises they could be working at.
If you apply Shapley value to a situation where there are more workers than jobs, regardless of how many businesses the jobs are split between, people who can’t get jobs still have a nonzero Shapley value based on their counterfactual contribution to the enterprises they could be working at.
Sure. That seems very sensible to me. I don’t see the problem?