Sorry but I do not see where older people having higher fatality when medicine fails leads to bias in the diamond princess data that would fit what you asked for in the original post. Please explain.
I don’t talk about mortality of old people at all. I only suggest that the claim that “young people below 40 have almost zero mortality” could be false.
Sorry but I do not see where older people having higher fatality when medicine fails leads to bias in the diamond princess data that would fit what you asked for in the original post. Please explain.
I don’t talk about mortality of old people at all. I only suggest that the claim that “young people below 40 have almost zero mortality” could be false.