The core problem remains that, if some event A plays no causal role in any verbal behavior, it is impossible to see how any word or phrase could refer to A. (You’ve called A “color perception A”, but I aim to dispute that.)
Suppose we come across the Greenforest people, who live near newly discovered species including the greater geckos. Greenforesters use the word “gumie” always and only when they are very near greater geckos. Since greater geckos are extremely well camouflaged, they can only be seen at short range. Also, all greater geckos are infested with microscopic gyrating gnats. Gyrating gnats make intense ultrasound energy, so whenever anyone is close to a greater gecko, their environment and even their brain is filled with ultrasound. When one’s brain is filled with this ultrasound, the oxygen consumption by brain cells rises. Greenforesters are hunter-gatherers lacking either microscopes or ultrasound detectors.
To what does “gumie” refer: geckos, ultrasound, or neural oxygen consumption? It’s a no-brainer. Greenforesters can’t talk about ultrasound or neural oxygen: those things play no causal role in their talk. Even though ultrasound and neural oxygen are both inside the speakers, and in that sense affect them, since neither one affects their talk, that’s not what the talk is about.
Mapping this causal structure to the epiphenomenalist story above: geckos are like photon-wavelengths R, ultrasound in brain is like brain activity B, oxygen consumption is like “color perception” A, and utterances of “gumie” are like utterances S1 and S2. Only now I hope you can see why I put scare quotes around “color perception”. Because color perception is something we can talk about.
I’m not sure that analogy can be extended to our cognitive processes, since we know for a fact that: 1. We talk about many things, such as free will, whose existence is controversial at best, and 2. Most of the processes causally leading to verbal expression are preconscious. There is no physical cause preventing us from talking about perceptions that our verbal mechanisms don’t have direct causal access to for reasons that are similar to the reasons that we talk about free will.
Why must A cause C for C to be able to accurately refer to A? Correlation through indirect causation could be good enough for everyday purposes. I mean, you may think the coincidence is too perfect that we usually happen to experience whatever it is we talk about, but is it true that we can always talk about whatever we experience? (This is an informal argument at best, but I’m hoping it will contradict one of your preconceptions.)
I don’t say that we can talk about every experience, only that if we do talk about it, then the basic words/concepts we use are about things that influence our talk. Also, the causal chain can be as indirect as you like: A causes B causes C … causes T, where T is the talk; the talk can still be about A. It just can’t be about Z, where Z is something which never appears in any chain leading to T.
I just now added the caveat “basic” because you have a good point about free will. (I assume you mean contracausal “free will”. I think calling that “free will” is a misnomer, but that’s off topic.) Using the basic concepts “cause”, “me”, “action”, and “thing” and combining these with logical connectives, someone can say “I caused my action and nothing caused me to cause my action” and they can label this complex concept “free will”. And that may have no referent, so such “free will” never causes anything. But the basic words that were used to define that term, do have referents, and do cause the basic words to be spoken. Similarly with “unicorn”, which is shorthand for (roughly) a “single horned horse-like animal”.
An eliminativist could hold that mental terms like “qualia” are referentless complex concepts, but an epiphenomenalist can’t.
The core problem remains that, if some event A plays no causal role in any verbal behavior, it is impossible to see how any word or phrase could refer to A. (You’ve called A “color perception A”, but I aim to dispute that.)
Suppose we come across the Greenforest people, who live near newly discovered species including the greater geckos. Greenforesters use the word “gumie” always and only when they are very near greater geckos. Since greater geckos are extremely well camouflaged, they can only be seen at short range. Also, all greater geckos are infested with microscopic gyrating gnats. Gyrating gnats make intense ultrasound energy, so whenever anyone is close to a greater gecko, their environment and even their brain is filled with ultrasound. When one’s brain is filled with this ultrasound, the oxygen consumption by brain cells rises. Greenforesters are hunter-gatherers lacking either microscopes or ultrasound detectors.
To what does “gumie” refer: geckos, ultrasound, or neural oxygen consumption? It’s a no-brainer. Greenforesters can’t talk about ultrasound or neural oxygen: those things play no causal role in their talk. Even though ultrasound and neural oxygen are both inside the speakers, and in that sense affect them, since neither one affects their talk, that’s not what the talk is about.
Mapping this causal structure to the epiphenomenalist story above: geckos are like photon-wavelengths R, ultrasound in brain is like brain activity B, oxygen consumption is like “color perception” A, and utterances of “gumie” are like utterances S1 and S2. Only now I hope you can see why I put scare quotes around “color perception”. Because color perception is something we can talk about.
I’m not sure that analogy can be extended to our cognitive processes, since we know for a fact that: 1. We talk about many things, such as free will, whose existence is controversial at best, and 2. Most of the processes causally leading to verbal expression are preconscious. There is no physical cause preventing us from talking about perceptions that our verbal mechanisms don’t have direct causal access to for reasons that are similar to the reasons that we talk about free will.
Why must A cause C for C to be able to accurately refer to A? Correlation through indirect causation could be good enough for everyday purposes. I mean, you may think the coincidence is too perfect that we usually happen to experience whatever it is we talk about, but is it true that we can always talk about whatever we experience? (This is an informal argument at best, but I’m hoping it will contradict one of your preconceptions.)
I don’t say that we can talk about every experience, only that if we do talk about it, then the basic words/concepts we use are about things that influence our talk. Also, the causal chain can be as indirect as you like: A causes B causes C … causes T, where T is the talk; the talk can still be about A. It just can’t be about Z, where Z is something which never appears in any chain leading to T.
I just now added the caveat “basic” because you have a good point about free will. (I assume you mean contracausal “free will”. I think calling that “free will” is a misnomer, but that’s off topic.) Using the basic concepts “cause”, “me”, “action”, and “thing” and combining these with logical connectives, someone can say “I caused my action and nothing caused me to cause my action” and they can label this complex concept “free will”. And that may have no referent, so such “free will” never causes anything. But the basic words that were used to define that term, do have referents, and do cause the basic words to be spoken. Similarly with “unicorn”, which is shorthand for (roughly) a “single horned horse-like animal”.
An eliminativist could hold that mental terms like “qualia” are referentless complex concepts, but an epiphenomenalist can’t.